Skip to main content

family planning 2.0- question bank & answer

Family planning-question bank and answer 1.  World population growth rate in 2022 is: a. 0.83%           b. 1% c.1.5%           d. 1.35% 2. In 2022, the following country has the highest population growth rate: a. America       b. Japan c. India             d. China 3. Population growth rate of Nepal in 2078 is: a.1%            b. 0.93% c. 1.5%        d. 0.5% 4. Family planning is important for: a. To make the family happy b. Better mental health c. Better child health d. Above all 5. What is the target couple? a. Married couple of 15-49 years b. Couple having two children c. Couple having 2-3 alive children d. Currently married couple 6. Eligible couple means: a. 15-45 yrs. of age with a married couple b. Married co...

A collection of question-answer on Non-communicable disease


A collection of question-answer on Non-communicable disease

1. All are characteristics of chronic disease except:1111111111

a. Are stable

b. Caused by reversible pathological alteration

c. Leave remaining disability

d. Need a long period of watching or care


2. Given options are features of NCD except:

a. Indefinite onset

b. Well-defined aetiological agent

c. Multifactorial causation

d. Prolonged latent period

3. Given options are a changeable risk factor for coronary heart disease:

a. Cigarette smoking

b. Obesity

c. Inactive habits

d. Above all

4. One of the following clinical presentations is specific to coronary heart disease:

a. Angina pectoris

b. Myocardial infarction

c. Sudden death

d. Irregularities of the heart rhythm

5. Following are correct about cigarette smoking and CHD except:

a. Risk decreases on stop of smoking

b. Filter cigarettes protective

c. Answerable for Coronary Heart Disease Deaths in men below 50 years

d. Directly concerned with number of cigarettes smoked/day

6. Mild HTN is defined as a diastolic BP of:

a. 70-80 mm of Hg

b. 80-90 mm oh Hg

c. 95-100 mm of Hg

d. 90-95 mm of Hg

7. All increase the risk for CHD except:

a. High fiber diet

b. Oral contraceptives

c. Alcohol abuse

d. Diabetes/Type A personality

8. In stroke, the most common cause is:

a. Cerebral embolism

b. Cerebral hemorrhage

c. Cerebral thrombosis

d. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

9. Most common cause of HTN is:

a. Heart disease     b. Kidney disease

c. Essential     d. Adrenal hyperplasia

10. Key risk factor for cerebral thrombosis is:

a. Oral contraceptives     b. Diabetes

c. Elevated blood lipids

d. HTN (hypertension)

11. Main somatoneurological disorder in stroke is:

a. Monoplegia     b. Paraplegia

c. Hemiplegia     d. Speech disturbances

12. Following measures help to decrease the morbidity of RTA (Road traffic accidents) except:

a. Leather clothing     b. Safety helmets

c. Goggles      d. Seat belts

13. Following are correct in obesity except:

a. Low bone weight

b. Increased total body water

c. Increased fatty mass

d. Reduced muscle mass

14. Fatness(obesity) is a danger factor for all except:

a. Cancer of the breast

b. Varicose veins

c. HTN      d. Gall bladder disease

15. In children below six years of age, common causes of blindness are all except:

A. Trachoma     b. Vitamin A deficiency

c. Bacterial conjunctivitis

d. Glaucoma

16. According to WHO, blindness is defined as visual acuity of less than:

a. 5/18          b. 6/50

c. 3/60        d. 5/6

17. In diabetes, the following are vulnerable groups except:

a. Family history of diabetes

b. Excess weight gain during pregnancy

c. Women who have had a newborn baby weighing < 2500 gm

d. Age above 40

19. For practical purposes, blindness is defined as an inability to count fingers in daylight at a distance of………, according to WHO:

a. 3 meters       b. 1 meter

c. 6 meters     d. 50 cm

20. The most frequent causes of blindness in developed countries are all except:

a. Diabetes       b. Trachoma

c. Cataract      d. Glaucoma

21. Obesity can be defined as a body mass index of more than……in males:

a. 2 SD (standard deviation)  b. 25

c. 30          d.10                                                              

22. Followings viruses are involved in the pathogenesis of DM except:

a. Adenovirus     b. Mumps

c. Coxsackie B  

d. Rubella                                                

23. For cervix carcinoma, all are risk factors except:

a. Multiple sexual partners

b. Early marriage

c. Genital warts

d. Women who have not given birth to a child

24. One of the following is not correct about gastric cancer:

a. There is an increased incidence of cancer localized to the cardia

b. World’s 2nd most common cancer

c. Incidence is more in women

d. Best food preservation process leads to reduce in abdomen cancer in industrialized countries

25. Because of its………, urine test as a screening assessment is fruitless:

a. High false positive

b. Low specificity

c. Low sensitivity

d. Above all

26. Cervix carcinoma is least common in:

a. India      b. Iran

c. Latin America     d. Israel

27. In the world, the most common sites of cancer among females are:

a. Lung       b. Cervix

c. Breast     d. Oral

28. Oral cancer is most commonly concerned with:

a. Tobacco   

b. Exposure to radiation

c. Alcohol 

d. None

29. Most common manifestation of rheumatic fever is:

a. Polyarthritis      b. Chorea

c. Subcutaneous nodules

d. Carditis

30. One of the following is compulsory to diagnose rheumatic fever:

a. Chorea      b. Carditis

c. Positive ASO antibodies

c. Polyarthritis

31. Giving benzathine penicillin in rheumatic fever patients for the prevention of repetition is…..

a. Tertiary prevention

b. Secondary prevention

c. Primordial prevention

d. Primary prevention

32. In rheumatic fever, the following are minor clinical criteria except:

a. Pre-history of rheumatic fever

b. Pericardial effusion

c. Pyrexia

d. Joint pain 

33. Which of the following are seen in the active stage of rheumatic fever patient except:

a. Carditis     b. Polyarthritis

c. fever     d. Subcutaneous nodules

34. All of the following cancer is related to tobacco except:

a. Lung       b. Liver

c. Urinary bladder

d. Oropharyngeal

35. Which of the following malignancy is associated with alcohol:

a. Rectal         b. Liver

c. Oesophagus     d. Above all

36. Cancer arising from mesodermal cells is:

a. Sarcoma        b. Lymphoma

c. Myeloma        d. Carcinoma

39. Most common site of cancer worldwide, when both sexes are involved, is:

a. colon        b. Stomach

c. Oral         d. Lung

41. In  hypertension, the following are the methods for primary prevention except:

a. Use low salt in the diet

b. Keep up a body mass index of < 25

c. High-calorie carbohydrate diet

d. Physical exercise

42. Which of the following is not correct about hypertension?

a. Rules of halves apply to hypertension

b. Obesity in high alcohol is related to an increased risk of HTN

c. High prevalence in males

d. No. of deaths in women due to HTN exceeds those in men

43. In developed countries, the major cause of mortality is:

a. Chronic infections

b. Acute infections

c. Industrial accidents

d. Cardiovascular disease

44. For CHD, the following are non-modifiable risk factors except:

a. Family history       b. Age

c. Diabetes             d. Sex

45. Most cardiac deaths occur within…………. Due to myocardial infarction:

a. 4 hrs.       b. 1 hour

c. 7 days       d. 10 days

46.  If the duration has more than ………., then a disease is called a chronic:

a. 2 months      b. 1 month

c. 3 months     d. 5 months

47. All are major risk factors for NCD (non-communicable disease) prevalence except:

a. Alcohol abuse     b. Stress factors

c. Smoking           d. Immunocompermize

48. Smoking causes coronary heart disease by:

a. Decreasing HDL lipoprotein levels

b. Promoting atherogenesis

c. Adrenergic drive raising

d. Above all

49. In developed countries, the increased prevalence of the chronic disease is caused by:

a. changing behavioral pattern

b. Lifestyle design

c. Increased life expectancy

d. Above all

50. The following single most fruitful test for recognizing individuals at risk of growing Coronary Heart Disease is:

a. S. cholesterol        b. Age

c. Blood pressure       d. inactive lifestyle

51. In coronary heart disease, which of the following are seen in high levels:

a. High-density lipoproteins                   

b. Low-density lipoproteins

c. Very low-density lipoprotein     

d. Chylomicrons

52. In coronary heart disease, primordial prevention involves:

a. Screening high-risk individuals

b. Control of blood pressure

c. Health check-ups

d. Conserving traditional lifestyle

53. To prevent cardiovascular disease, the prevention of the emergence of risk factors is called:

a. Specific protection

b. Secondary prevention

c. Primordial prevention

d. Primary prevention

54. Which of the following elements of cigarette smoke is responsible for coronary artery disease:

a. Tar and carbon monoxide

b. Nicotine and tar

c. Nicotine and carbon monoxide

d. Nicotine, tar, and carbon monoxide

55. For CHD (coronary heart disease) risk, the most specific plasma marker is:

a. High-density lipoproteins cholesterol (HDL)    

b. Serum Very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL)

c. Serum low-density lipoproteins (SLDL)

d. Increased Apolipoprotein-B

56. According to WHO suggestion, the following are concerned in recording blood pressure except:

a. Use of arm consistently

b. Record BP in the supine position

c. Record the lowest of three readings

d. Measure thrice at three-minute intervals

57. ‘Tracking’ of blood pressure means:

a. Graphic/pictorial representation of BP

b. Twenty-four-hour BP monitoring

c. BP control with Nefidipine

d. Recognizing children at risk of developing HTN at a future date

58.  Cause of rheumatic fever belongs to the following virus is:

a. Rhinovirus      b. Coxasackie virus

c. Respiratory syncytial virus

d. Adenovirus

60. Causative agent of cancer

. Human papilloma virus------cancer of cervix

 .Cytomegalovirus-------Kaposi sarcoma

 .Hepatitis B virus-------Hepatocellular carcinoma

 .Epstein-Barr virus----Burkitt’s lymphoma

61. cancer most commonly  seen in AIDS is:

a. Adult B cell leukemia

b. Kaposi sarcoma

c. Hepatocellular carcinoma

d. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

62. Following are early warning signs (danger signals) of cancer except:

a. Persistent cough

b. Change in wart

c. Unexplained fever

d. Persistent change of bowel habits

63. Best possible protection against cancer is:

a. Health education

b. Dietary modification

c. Cancer screening

d. Control of tobacco consumption

64. Primary prevention of cancer are all except:

a. Immunization against hepatitis B

b. Control of tobacco consumption

c. Management of pre-cancers lesions

d. Screening of cancer

65. Reverse smoking is related with:

a. Liver carcinoma

b. Tongue carcinoma

c. Epidermoid carcinoma of hard plate

d. Adenocarcinoma in the lower lip

66. In breast cancer, the following are danger factors except:

a. Positive family history

b. Nulliparity/Late menopause

c. Low socioeconomic status

d. Elevated estrogen levels

67. One of the following components of cigarette smoke predisposes to Lungs cancer:

a. Tar

b. Nitrosamine      c. CO

d. Nicotine

68. One of the following is not correct about lungs cancer:

a. Filter cigarettes have a low risk

b. Bidis are more common carcinogenic than cigarettes

c. Nicotine contributes to increased risk of CVD

d. Passive smokers are also elevated danger

72. The following is Quetelet,s index (BMI) :

a. Actual weight/Desirable weight

b. Weight: height

c. Weight/ (height in a square)

d. Height-100

75.  Which Cancer is responsible for primary prevention:

a. Breast cancer   b. Cervix cancer

c. Oral cancer        d. Liver carcinoma

76. For breast cancer, the most particular and sensitive technique of screening is:

a. Thermography

b. Mammography

c. Breast self-examination

d. Examination by the physician

77. For effectual cancer screening of the cervix, a PAP smear should be taken every:

a. 1 year        b. 6 months

c. 3 years       d. 5 years

78. Detecting cancer of the cervix in women by using a PAP smear examination is:

a. Tertiary prevention

b. Primary prevention

c. Secondary prevention

d. None

79. Cause and disease

a. High-fat diet-----Stomach cancer

b. Epstein-Barr virus---Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

c. Smoked fish-----Gastric cancer

d. Schistosomiasis----Bladder cancer

80. Given options are precancerous lesions except:

a. Chronic gastritis

b. Intestinal polyposis

c. Cervical erosion

d. C. cervicitis


Conclusion- 

above question-answer prepared from K. PARK's book. I hope my efforts will enhance your knowledge. Thank u.If you have any problems then comment to me at sarojnepal2059@gmail.com

 


 

 

 

 

Comments