Environment sanitation questions and answers for students -3.0

Environment sanitation questions and answers for students

1. Adequate water supply per head per day is considered as:

a.  200-300 L           b. 100-150 L

c. 150-200 L            d. 50-100 L

2. The given criteria do not define a sanitary well:

a. Provision of the parapet above the ground level

b. People use their own buckets and ropes

c. 15 meters(50 feet) far from the source of contamination

d. Platform around the well with a gentle slope outwards

e. Covered on the top

3. The following are correct about shallow wells as compared to deep wells except:

a. Grossly contaminated

b. Moderately hard water

c. Usually provide a source of constant supply

d. Taps the water from above the first impervious layer

4. In a slow sand filter, the vital layer acts as:

a. Oxidizing ammoniacal  nitrogen into nitrates

b. Removing organic matter

c. Holding back bacteria

d. All of the above

5. All are correct about rapid sand filters except:

a. Washing of filter is easy by backwashing

b. More efficient in the removal of bacteria

c. Filtration is 40-50 times more rapid than that of a slow sand filter

d. Preliminary treatment is by chemical coagulation

6. In a slow sand filter, the thickness of the sand bed is:

a. 50 cm          b. 80 cm

c. 2 meters       d. 1 meter

7. The size of sand particles in rapid filters is:

a. 4.5-5.5 mm       b.0.10-0.20 mm

c.2.5-3 mm           d. 0.6-2.0 mm

8. Mainly, the disinfecting action of chlorine is due to:

a. Hypochlorous acid

b. Chloride atom

c. Hypochlorite ion

d. Chloride ion

9. Chlorination has no effect on the following except:

a. Spores, helminthic ova

b. Salmonella

c. Cysts of E. Histolytica

d. Virus of infectious hepatitis

10. For disinfecting large bodies of water chlorine is applied in the form of:

a. Chlorine gas

b. Perchloron

c. Bleaching powder

d. Chloramine

11. For disinfection of water, the action of chlorine depends upon:

a. Temperature

b. Time

c. pH

d. Above all

12. The following steps are involved in rapid sand filter:

. Coagulation-Rapid mixing-Flocculation-Sedimentation-Filtration.

13. When pH is around………, the action of chlorine is maximum.

a. 4             b. 5

c. 10            d. 7

14. All are correct about orthotoludine test except:

a. After 10 seconds reading should be taken

b. Detects free chlorine in water only

c. Yellow color matching is an endpoint

d. 0.1 ml of reagent is added to 1 ml of water

15. Which one of the following is not correct about ozonation?

a. Residual germicidal effect

b. Strong virucidal effect

c. Dosage required is 0.2 to 1.5 mg/lit

d. Eliminates undesirable odor and taste

16. The following is not transmitted by arthropods:

a. Malaria          b. Leprosy

c. Yellow fever      d. Kala-zar

17. Scrub typhus is transmitted by:

a. Louise         b. Tick

c. Flea            d. Mite

18. The following diseases are transmitted by mosquitoes except:

a. Malaria        b. Yellow fever

c. Filariasis      d. Leishmaniasis

19. Tsetse fly transmits:

a. Sleeping sickness

b. Oriental sore

c. Kala-azar

d. Chagas disease

20. House fly transmits all except:

a. Trachoma       b. Typhoid

c. Bacillary dysentery

d. Pinworm

21. The following is not a zoonotic disease:

a. Plague

b. Epidemic typhus

c. Rabies

d. Salmonellosis

22. Zinc phosphide is:

a. Larvicide      b. Pesticide

c. Rodenticide   d. Above all

23. Insecticide used as space spray is:

a. Fenthion         b. Paris green

c. Abate            d. Pyrethrum

24. All of the following are organophosphorus insecticides except:

a. Dieldrin         b. Diazinon

c. Abate            d. Malathion

25. Least toxic organophosphorus insecticide is:

a. Abate      b. Chlorothion

c. Malathion    d. Fenthion

26. Organophosphorous contact poison is:

a. BHC           b. Pyrethrum

c. Paris green   d. Abate

27. Residual action of malathion lasts for:

a. 3 months       b. 1 month

c. 5 months        d. 10 months

28. Paris green is a type of:

a. Fumigant         b. Repellant

c. Stomach poison

d. Contact poison

29. DDT acts as a:

a. Contact poison

b. Stomach poison

c. Affects fertility

d. Repellant

30. Cyclops is an intermediate host of:

a. Tularaemia      b. Onchocercosis

c. Echinococcus     d. Dracontiasis

31. The following disease is not transmitted by the Culex mosquito is:

a. West Nile fever

b. Dengue fever

c. Bancroftain filariasis

d. Japnese encephalitis

32. The vector of Malaria is Anopheles culicifacies.

33. Malayan Filaria is caused by Mansonioides (vector)

34. West Nile fever is caused by Culex(vector)

35. Dengue is caused by Aedes aegypti.

36. The best method for arthropod control is:

a. Genetic control

b. Biological control

c. Chemical control

d. Environmental control

37. The lifecycle of a mosquito from egg to adult stage is about:

a. 1-3 days         b. 5-7 days

c. 2-5 days         d. 7-10 days

38. Mechanism of action of mineral oils is:

a. Contact poison

b. Stomach poison

c. Prevents adults from laying an egg

d. Cut off the oxygen supply to mosquito larvae and pupae

39. Houseflies transmit disease by:

a. Defaecation

b. Vomit drop

c. Mechanical transmission

d. Above all

40. Choice of  treatment for body lice is:

a. Malathion       b. HCH

c. DDT                d. Carbaryl

41. Relapsing fever is transmitted by:

a. Rat             b. Pubic lice

c. Itch mite       d. Soft tick

42. All are rat flea borne’ diseases except:

a. Endemic typhus

b. Tularaemia

c. Bubonic plague

d. Hymenolepis diminuta

43. One of the following is an insect vector which in itself also causes disease:

a. Reduvilid bug        b. Louce

c. Trombiculid mite

d. Sarcoptes scabiei

44. The following are correct about the Anopheles mosquito:

1. The larvae have two siphon tubes

2. The eggs are seen floating singly in the water

3. The adults sit on the wall making an angle with it

a.  2 and 3           b. 1,2 and 3

c. 1 and 2           d. 1 and 3

45. The following diseases can be spread by rodents except:

a. Rabies         b. Tularaemia

c. Laptospirosis       d. Lassa fever

46. The following one is not a zoonosis:

a. Poliomylities

b. Tuberculosis

c. Kyasanur forest disease

d. Leptospirosis

47. Which of the following is a natural insecticide?

a. Aldrin        b. Paris green

c. Rotenone     d. DDT

48.  DDT and  HCH are:

a. Rodenticides

b. Weedicides

c. Organophosphorous compounds

d. Organochlorine compounds

49. For individual prophylaxis, drinking water is made free of Cyclops by:

a. Chlorination      b. Abate

c. Boiling              d. Filtration

50. The following are features of Culex mosquitoes except:

a. Highly anthrophilic

b. Peak biting time is noon

c. Preferred biting site in the leg

d. Breeds in dirty water collections

e. Common nuisance mosquitoes 

51. Major mode of transmission of Plague by rat flea is:

a. Biting       b. Vomit drop

c. Through feces

d. Mechanical transmission

52. The following one is not correct about Scabies:

a. Itching is worse at night

b. Transmitted by close contact

c. In babies, the head must also be treated with an application of benzyl benzoate

d. Commonest site of lesion is the buttocks and groin

53. For control of houseflies, the best method is:

a. Flypapers

b. 5% Malathion spray

c. Elimination of breeding spaces

d. Pyrethrin space spray

54. Mainly, the Paris green kills:

a. Aedes adults

b. Culax larvae

c. Anopheles larvae

d. Mansonia adults

55. Mansonia transmits:

a. Japnese encephalitis

b. Dengue hemorrhagic fever

c. Chikungunya fever

d. Bancroftian filiriasis

56. Reduviid bug transmits:

a. Murine typhus     b. KFD

c. Chagas disease   d.  Above all

57.  Sterile male technique is a type of:

a. Biological control

b. Genetic control

c. Chemical control

d. Environmental control

58. In mosquitoes, the period between a blood meal until eggs are laid is called:

a. Generation time

b. Serial interval

c. Gonotrophic cycle

d. Extrinsic incubation period

59. The following disease transmits by Aedes except one is:

a. Rift valley fever

b. Dengue

c. Japanese encephalitis

d. Chikungunya fever

60. Hard tick transmits all except:

a. Japanese encephalitis

b. Human babesiosis,Tularaemia

c. Relapsing fever

d. Tick typhus(Ricky Mountain spotted fever)

61. The following diseases have insect vectors except:

a. Brucellosis       b. West Nile

c. Chagas disease   d. Epidemic typhus

62. The following disease agent is transmitted mechanically by the arthropods:

a. Diarrhoea, Amoebiasis

b. Typhoid

c. Trachoma

d. Above all

63. Louse is a vector for all except:

a. Endemic typhus

b. Trench fever

c. Relapsing fever

d. Epidemic typhus

64. Which of  the following diseases are transmitted by sandfly except:

a. Kala-zar    b. Oriental sore

c. Relapsing fever

d. Oraya fever

65. The period of time necessary for the development of the disease agent in the arthropod host is called:

a. Period of reproduction

b. Latent period

c. Extrinsic incubation period

d. Intrinsic incubation period

66. The following are features of the Aedes egg except:

a. Boat-shaped      b. Single

c. Cigar-shaped

d. Do not possess lateral floats

67. The following insecticide has no residual action:

a. Pyrethrum       b. DDT

c. Malathion        d. Lindane

68. Which of the arthropods gives birth to living larvae:

a. Tsetse fly          b. Black fly

c. Cyclops         d. Reduviid bug

69. Mosquito’s eggs are found attached to aquatic plants piste is:

a. Culex      b. Anopheles

c. Mansonia     d. Aedes

70. One of the following is an efficient flea repellant:

a. Ethyl hexanediol

b. Indalone

c. Diethyltoluamide

d. Dimethyl phthalate

71. Diseases transmitted by mites include:

a. Murine typhus  

b. Trachoma

c. Leptospirosis

d. Rickettsialpox

72. Consider the following disease,

1. Dengue fever  

2. Filaria

3. Kyasanur forest disease

MOSQUITO is a vector of:

a.    1 and 2

b.    2 and 3

c.    1,2 and 3

d.    1 and 3

73. Least toxic organochlorine compound is:

a. Aldrin      b. DDT

c. HCH         d. Methoxychlor

74. One of the following is a single dose rodenticide:

a. Diphacinone       b. Pindone

c. Courmafuryl        d. Zinc phosphide

75. Which of the following is not correct about organophosphorus compounds poisoning?

a. Treatment is with barbiturates

b. Atropine is a specific antidote

c. Act by inhibiting cholinesterase

d. Effects are salivation, sweating, uncontrolled urination, and unconsciousness

76. For fumigation of rats,……….is used:

a. Carbon monoxide

b. Cyanogas

c. Calcium sulfate

d. Potassium iodide

77. The insecticide that can be combined with solid substances like wax is:

a. Dichlorovos         b. Diazinon

c. Pyrethrum           d. Fenthion

78. The most satisfactory and permanent method of Cyclops control is:

a. Provision of sanitary wells

b. Provision of piped water supply

c. Regular chlorination

d. Abate -1mg/litre

79. The dose of abate is:

A. 5ppm       b. 1ppm

c. 15ppm       d. 50ppm

80. The following insecticides are considered an environmental pollutant:

a. Malathion       b. HCH

c. DDT             d. Abate

81. One of the following is an efficient sarcopticide:

a. 5% tetmosol

b. 0.5-1% HCH

c. 25% Benzyle benzoate

d. Above all

82. The following are contact poisons except:

a. HCH        b. Dieldrin

c. Sodium fluoride

d. Pyrethrum

83. One of the following is a ‘repellant’ insecticide:

a. Methoxylchor      b. Dichlorvos

c. Indalone        d. Chlorpyrifos

84. For the destruction of larvae of guinea worm, the chlorine level is:

a. 5ppm      b. 0.5ppm

c. 1ppm       d. 3ppm

85. Dose of DDT as the residual spray is:

a. 100-200 mg/sq. foot

b. 200-400 mg/sq. foot

c.50-100 mg/sq. foot

c. 10-20 mg/sq. foot

86. Which one of the following insecticides is a carbamate?

a. Pyrethrum        b. Aldrin

c. Hydrogen cyanide     

d. Propoxur

87. The most extensively used insecticide for ultra-low volume spraying is:

a. DDT    b. Malathion

c. Pyrethrum      d. Lindane

88. The following is not used in the biological control of mosquitoes:

a. Bacillus Ephesians

b. Coelomomyces

c. Barbados millions

d. Gambusia affinis

89. The following are found resistant to DDT except:

a. Anopheles stephensi

b. Phlebotomous

c. Culex fatigans

d. Musca domestica

 Conclusion- I hope the above questions and answers will be beneficial for all health students. If any queries then comment to me @  sarojnepal2059@gmail.com. thank u for supporting me.