Family planning-question bank and answer 1. World population growth rate in 2022 is: a. 0.83% b. 1% c.1.5% d. 1.35% 2. In 2022, the following country has the highest population growth rate: a. America b. Japan c. India d. China 3. Population growth rate of Nepal in 2078 is: a.1% b. 0.93% c. 1.5% d. 0.5% 4. Family planning is important for: a. To make the family happy b. Better mental health c. Better child health d. Above all 5. What is the target couple? a. Married couple of 15-49 years b. Couple having two children c. Couple having 2-3 alive children d. Currently married couple 6. Eligible couple means: a. 15-45 yrs. of age with a married couple b. Married co...
Most probable question on all level health exam-job, entrance
1. Most important component of level
of living is:
a. housing b. occupation
c. education d. Health
2. Provision
of free medical care to the people at government expense is known as:
a. Social medicine
b. social insurance program
c. state medicine
d. social therapy
3. Latest
inclusion in community health is:
a. economical
b. community participation
c. at doorsteps
d. felt need for people
4. The following is one of the branches
of sociology that studies the relationship between organisms and the environment:
a. ecology b. social pathology
c. social physiology d. ergonomics
5. Human development index[HDI]
combines the following indicators except:
a. Mean years of schooling
b. Infant mortality rate
c. real GDP per capita
d. Life expectancy at birth
6. Which of the following is a
measure of the burden of disease in a defined population and the effectiveness of interventions:
a. Park’s index
b. Activities of daily living index
c. Bed disability days
d. Disability-adjusted life year[DAILY]
7. Expectation of life, free of
disability is known as :
a. Sullivan’s index
b. Smith’s index
c. Park’s index
d. Above all
8. All are morbidity indicators
except:
a. Attendance rate in OPD
b. Dependency ratio
c. Spells of absence from work
d. Incidence
9. The following are morbidity
indicators except:
a. Notification rate
b. Disability rates
c. Prevalence rate
d. Incidence rate
10. The following is not an indicator
of mortality:
a. Expectation of life
b. Maternal mortality rate
c. Infant mortality rate
d. Doctor-population ratio
11. Most universally accepted
indicator of the health status of the whole population is:
a. Child mortality rate
b. Maternal mortality rate
c. Infant mortality rate
d. Crude death rate
12. Magnitude of preventable
mortality is indicated by :
a. Expectation of life
b. Child mortality rate
c. Maternal moetality rate
d. Proportional mortality rate
13. Ability of an infectious agent
to induce clinically apparent illness is known as:
a. Virulence
b. Infectivity
c. Pathogenicity
d. None of above
14. The proportion of clinical cases
resulting in severe clinical manifestations is known as:
a. Virulence
b. Illness
c. Pathogenicity
d. Infectivity
15. The phase of pathogenesis is the
natural history of disease that starts when,
a. When signs and symptoms appear
b. When a disease agent enters the human host
c. Agent, host, and
d. none
16. Course of disease process without
any intervention is the definition of :
a. Epidemiological triad
b. Natural history of the disease
c. Spectrum of disease
d. Epidemiology
17. The web of causation, for
chronic disease implies that the disease can not be controlled unless:
a. A number of multiple causes are controlled
b. Chain
of causation is controlled
c. All the multiple causes are removed
d. None of above
18. State of social dysfunction
is:
a. Disease
b. Sickness
c. Illness
d. none
19. The following is the tertiary level
of prevention is:
a.Rehabilitation
b. Early diagnosis and treatment
c. Chemoprophylaxis
d. Health
promotion
20. Early diagnosis and
treatment are:
a. Primordial prevention
b. Tertiary prevention
c. Secondary prevention
d. Primary prevention
21. Which of the following is a basic
need indicator?
a. Doctors and nurses per population
b. GNP per capita
c. Calorie consumption
d. above all
22. zero population growth rate is present in:
a. the USA
b. Japan
c. Belgium
d. Nepal
23. Secondary health care is provided
by :
a. Bir hospital
b. Teaching hospital
c. Community health center
d. Primary health center
24. True about,” H4A by 2000 AD” is:
a. Health services at personal exposure
b. Health service by the government with the participation of community
c. Hospital-based services
d. Primary health care
25. Health for all by 2000, the WHO
is mainly concerned with all except :
a. Providing potable water supply
b. Immunization against
infectious diseases
c. Prevention and control of endemic diseases
d. Resources allocation
26.” Health for all by 2000” means:
a. Availability
of health resources to urban and rural poor
b. Even
distribution of available health resources among the population
c. BY the year
2000 communicable diseases will be controlled
d. Medical care for everybody in the world for their medical ailments
27. PRIMARY HEALTH CARE is --Essential
health care made universally accessible to all individuals in a community
through full participation of its members by means that are acceptable to them
and at a cost, the community and the
country can afford it called PRIMARY
HEALTH CARE.
28. International classification of
disease covers:
a. Congenital malformations and deformations
b. morbidity resulting from illness and injury
c. Mental and behavioral disorders
d. Above
all
29. Prophylactic administration of VITAMIN
A in a child is referred to as:
a. Treatment
b. Health promotion
c. Specific protection
d. Rehabilitation
30. Community medicine is a new term
for:
a. Community health
b. Public health
c. Preventive medicine
d. Above all
31. Silent epidemic of the century is :
a. Chronic liver disease
b. Alzheimer’s disease
c. Chronic obstructive lung disease
d. Coronary
heart disease
32. The following activities in
secondary prevention except:
a. Periodic examination
b. Screening surveys
c. Case finding measures
d. Chemoprophylaxis
33. All are major causes of
disability in developing countries except:
a. Coronary heart disease
b. low quality of perinatal care
c. Malnutrition
d. Communicable diseases
34. Any loss or abnormality of a psychological, physiological, or anatomical structure or function is :
a. Handicap
b. Impairment
c. Disability
d. None of above
35. Promoting a healthy lifestyle in
children is :
a. High-risk strategy
b. Primordial prevention
c. Specific protection
d. Secondary prevention
36. Regional elimination in disease control is:
a. Reduced psychosocial complications of infection
b. Interruption of transmission of disease
c. Decreased financial burden on the community
d. Decreased incidence of disease
37. Prevention of emergence or
development of risk factors is a type of :
a. Mass treatment
b. Screening
c. Health promotion
d. Primordial prevention
38. Immunization is :
a. Rehabilitation
b. Earley detection and treatment
c. Specific protection
d. Health promotion
39. The following is an example of
primordial prevention:
a. TT vaccination
b. Chlorination of water
c. Low salt diet to prevent HTN
d. Inculcating healthy
habits in children
40. All are interventions aimed at
specific protection except :
a. Chemoprophylaxis
b. Screening for diabetes
c. Use of helmets
d. Avoidance of the allergen
41. The key to the nature, occurrence, prevention, and control of diseases lie in the:
a. Agent
b. Host
c. Environment
d. None
42. The following statements about the eradication programme are true except :
a. The object
is to eliminate the disease to the extent that no new case occurs in the future
b. Case
finding is of secondary importance
c. Eradication
program is over once the disease has
been certified as having been eradicated
d. There is
complete interruption of disease transmission in the entire area of the community
43. In fluoride-rich water areas, the
defluoridation of water is which level
of prevention:
a. Tertiary
b. Primary
c. Primordial
d. Secondary
44. The following is an example of
secondary prevention:
a. Chemotherapy of TB
b. Skin surgery in Lepromatous patient
c. Measles vaccination
d. INH to a child
breastfeeding on a Tubercular mother on chemotherapy:
45. The following are health
promotion strategies except:
a. Health education
b. Control of
insects
c. Lifestyle changes
d. Chemoprophylaxis
46. Which one of the following does
not represent the submerged portion of the iceberg?
a. Carriers
b. Presymtomatic cases
c. Undiagnosed cases
d. diagnosed
cases under treatment
47 The principle of the “at-risk” approach is :
a. More for the needy
b. Something for all
c. All for all
d. All for some
48.Sentinal surveillance indicates:
a. Identifying the missing cases
b. Identifying
high-risk groups
c. Surveillance of environmental control
d. Surveillance
of water pollution
49. Graphic representation of
variations in the manifestations of the disease is:
a. Disease ecology
b. Epidemiological
history
c. Natural history of the disease
d. Spectrum of
disease
50. Process by which the results are
compared with intended objectives is :
a. Network analysis
b. Input-output analysis
c. Monitoring
d. Evaluation
51. Which of the following is not an
example of secondary prevention?
a. Mass trachoma treatment
b. Mammography
c. Treatment of hypertension
d. Use
of calipers
52. Continuous scrutiny of factors
that determine the occurrence and distribution of disease and other conditions
of ill health is the explanation of :
a. Disease control
b. System
analysis
c. Surveillance
d. Monitoring
53. Which of the following is
tertiary prevention?
a. Early diagnosis and treatment
b. Disability limitation
c. Specific protection
d. Health
promotion
54. Arrange the following sequence:
x. disability y. Handicap z. Impairment
a. XYZ b. yxz
c. yzx d. zxy
55. The following are not promotive
services:
a. Immunization against tetanus
b. Periodic
health screening
c. Safe drinking water supply
d. Adequate
nutritions
56. The best and the most economical
method of screening for a disease is :
a. Mass screening
b. High-risk screening
c. Prospective screening
d. Multiphasic
screening
57. A good screening test must be:
a. Valid
b. Acceptable
c. Repeatable
d. Above
all
58. Prevalence of disease affects:
a. Predictive value
b. Relative
risk
c. Specificity
d. Sensitivity
59. In a communicable disease with
high mortality, tests must be:
a. Highly sensitive
b. Economical
c. Easy to perform
d. Highly
specific
60. An ideal screening test should
have all except:
a. High specificity
b. Low
specificity
c. High yield
d. High
sensitivity
61. Sensitivity is the ability of a test
to detect:
a. False positive
b. True
positive
c. False negative
d. True
negative
62. Amount of previously unrecognized
disease that is diagnosed as a result of screening effort is:
a. Prevalence
b. Surveillance
c. Yield
d. Predictive
value
63. If the cut-off point in the
interpretation of the test is raised, one of the following may occur:
a. Sensitivity and specificity both decrease
b. Sensitivity and specificity both increase
c. Sensitivity increases and specificity decreases
d. Sensitivity
decreases and specificity increases
64 .Sensitivity is defined as
---- True positive/True positive+False negative
65. Specificity is defined as
----True negative/False positive+true negative
66. Active search for
unrecognized disease among
apparently healthy people is :
a. Case finding
b. Surveillance
c. Screening
d. Notification
67. Tip of iceberg denotes-----
a. Subclinical cases
b. Clinical
cases
c. Undiagnosed cases
d. Parasite
68. Reapetablity of a screening test
depends on:
a. Observer variation
b. Errors relating to technical methods
c. Biological variation
d. Above
all
69. Prospective screening is done for
:
a. Prevention of disease
b. Case
detection
c. Disability limitation
d. Control
of disease
70. In a community, the identification of
high-risk individuals for coronary artery disease and the prevention of risk
factors is :
A. Tertiary prevention
b. Surveillance
c. Primary prevention
d. Selective
screening
71. Specificity is the ability of a
screening test to detect :
a. False-positive
b. False
negative
c. True negative
d. True
positive
72. Multiphasic screening refers to:
a. Applied to various geographical areas
b. Done at a different
time period
c. Application of two or more tests in combination
d. None of above
73. Selective screening refers to
screening tests applied to :
a. High-risk groups
b. Group
of volunteers
c. Group selected by random sampling
d. None
of above
74. The time interval between
diagnosis by early detection and diagnosis by other means is:
a. Serial interval
b. Lead
time
c. Latent period
d. Incubation
period
75. Diagnostic power of the test is
reflected by :
a. Predictive value
b. Specificity
c. Sensitivity
d. Population
attributable risk
76. The disease to be screened should
fulfill the following criteria:
a. Early
detection and treatment should reduce morbidity and mortality
b. Prevalence
should be high
c. There
should be recognizable latent stage
d. Above
all
77. The sensitivity of a diagnostic
test is its ability to detect :
a. Positive
results in those who have the disease
b. Negative
results in those who have the disease
c. Positive
results in those who have no disease
d. Negative
result in those who have no disease
78. The screening differs from
periodic health examination in which of the following respect?
a. Requires
little physician time
b. Capable of
wide application
c. Relatively
inexpensive
d. Above
all
79. True positives as a % of all
positives is :
a. Specificity
b. Sensitivity
c. Predictive value
d. Above
all
80. All the features of the screening test except:
a. Applied to groups
b. Very
accurate
c. Based on one criterion
d. Test
results are final
81. The predictive accuracy
of a screening test depends on:
a. Disease prevalence
b. Specificity
c. Sensitivity
d. above all
Conclusion-
I hope the above qna fruitful for all level health students.
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